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BAVA KAMA: CHAPTER 8

Bava Kamma 89

Why Selling Your Ketubah Rights Is So Risky

Part of Bava Kama: chapter 8 · 53:30

Covers the rabbinic enactment (Takanas Usha) governing a wife's right to sell property she brought into the marriage, and why selling away ketubah rights endangers her marital security.

Audio Transcript
Intro to 转拽谞转 讗讜砖讗 and 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙

Today's 砖讬注讜专 will be 诪住讻转讗 讘讘讗 拽诪讗 讚祝 驻"讟, and we'll start two lines from the bottom of 讚祝 驻"讞 注诪讜讚 讘'. The 讙诪专讗 here just mentioned 转拽谞转 讗讜砖讗, that in the city of 讗讜砖讗, the 讞讻诪讬诐 made a 转拽谞讛 that if a woman sells her 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙, meaning things that belong to her, but while she is married to her husband, her husband is the one that eats the 驻讬专讜转, meaning he gets any benefit, any profit that comes from her possessions goes to him, but the possessions themselves belong to the wife. So 诪爪讚 讛讚讬谉, if she would sell it, then it would belong to the buyer, because after all, she owns it. But the 讞讻诪讬诐 made a 转拽谞讛 in 讗讜砖讗, that if a woman sells from her 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙 and she dies, her husband is able to go to the 诇拽讜讞讜转 and take them back, because the 讞讻诪讬诐 made the ownership of the husband over these possessions very strong, that she has no right to sell them. And if she

Invalid sale and husband鈥檚 reclamation rights

did sell them, then the sale is not valid and the husband is able to take them back. So the 讙诪专讗 says, 讗诪专 专讘讬 讚讬诪讬 讘专 讗讘讬谉, 专讘讬 讚讬诪讬 讘专 讗讘讬谉 said, 讗祝 讗谞谉 谞诪讬 转谞讬谞讗, we also learn in a 讘专讬讬转讗 that proves this 转拽谞讛 of 讗讜砖讗. Says, 诪注讬讚讬谉 讗谞讜 讘讗讬砖 驻诇讜谞讬 砖讙讬专砖 讗转 讗砖转讜, if two witnesses come and testify that we testify that this person divorced his wife, 讜谞转谉 讻转讜讘转讛, and he also paid her the 讻转讜讘讛, and 诇驻讜注诇 they were lying, 讜讛专讬 讛讬讗 转讞转讬讜, she's still under him, meaning she's still married to him, 讜诪砖诪砖转讜, she serves him, she's still taking care of him, he didn't divorce her and definitely he didn't give her the 讻转讜讘讛. And not only were they found to be liars, but the way they were found to be liars was 讜谞诪爪讗讜 讝讜诪诪讬谉, that they were found to be 注讚讬诐 讝讜诪诪讬谉. And the 讚讬谉 is that when you find 注讚讬诐 to be 讝讜诪诪讬谉, you have to do to them what they wanted to do to the other. Here, they wanted this woman to lose her 讻转讜讘讛 because they claimed that she already received her 讻转讜讘讛, and really they were lying. So now what would we assume should be done to them? They have to pay her the amount they wanted her to lose, meaning they would have to pay her the whole 讻转讜讘讛. So we say, 讗讬谉 讗讜诪专讬诐, we do not say, 讬砖诇诪讜 讻诇 讻转讜讘转讛, that they should pay her the whole 讻转讜讘讛, 讗诇讗 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 讚讻转讜讘讛, they only pay the 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 of the 讻转讜讘讛. Only the satisfaction of the benefit of the 讻转讜讘讛. They don't have to pay for the whole 讻转讜讘讛 because actually they didn't make her lose the 讻转讜讘讛. Because how do we know 讘讻诇诇 that she's ever going to get the 讻转讜讘讛 that we're able to say that through their testimony they wanted to make her lose the 讻转讜讘讛? The 讚讬谉 by a 讻转讜讘讛 is that if her husband divorces with her or her husband dies, that's when she receives the 讻转讜讘讛. But if she dies before her husband, then she doesn't get the 讻转讜讘讛 at all. So therefore, we don't know 讘讻诇诇 whether this woman would definitely eventually get her 讻转讜讘讛 that we should be able to say that they made her lose the 讻转讜讘讛. If there would be other witnesses here that would say that she was divorced and she did not receive the 讻转讜讘讛, and these witnesses said that she did receive the 讻转讜讘讛, so then they actually wanted her to lose the 讻转讜讘讛, because she definitely deserves the 讻转讜讘讛, because she was divorced as the other witnesses testify, and they wanted to say that she got her 讻转讜讘讛 already, so they wanted her definitely to lose the 讻转讜讘讛. So then, definitely they would have to pay the full amount of 讻转讜讘讛 because that's what they wanted her to lose. But in a case where we don't know whether they actually made her lose the 讻转讜讘讛, because maybe she will never get the 讻转讜讘讛 anyway, because maybe she will die before her husband, so she will never receive the 讻转讜讘讛 诇讻转讞讬诇讛. So we can't say that the witnesses should pay the full amount of the 讻转讜讘讛. So what we say is they only pay the 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 of the 讻转讜讘讛, meaning how much the 讻转讜讘讛 is worth to her at this moment. Now,

Defining the value of 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛

how do we know how much it's worth to her now? So the 讙诪专讗 says, 讗讬讝讜 讛讬讗 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛? What is considered 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛, the satisfaction of the benefit of the 讻转讜讘讛? That is through 讗讜诪讚讬谉 we estimate 讻诪讛 讗讚诐 专讜爪讛 诇讬转谉 讘讻转讜讘转讛 砖诇 讝讜, how much would a person be willing to pay for her 讻转讜讘讛 砖讗诐 谞转讗诇诪谞讛 讗讜 谞转讙专砖讛, that just in case she will become a widow or she will be divorced, then her 讻转讜讘讛 will be worth something. On the other hand, it's a risk because 讜讗诐 诪转讛, if she dies first, 讬专砖谞讛 讘注诇讛, her husband will inherit her and there will be no 讻转讜讘讛 given to her. In other words, if a person would buy her 讻转讜讘讛 now, he would be taking a risk. Maybe this 讻转讜讘讛 would mature, and that person would collect the whole amount, since he will buy the 讻转讜讘讛 from her, so he takes her place. So when the moment comes, when the 讻转讜讘讛 matures, meaning that she should have gotten the 讻转讜讘讛, so instead of her getting it, that person would get it. And that would be only if her husband divorces her, or if her husband dies, so then the 讬讜专砖讬诐 would have to pay the 讻转讜讘讛. So in that side, it would be worth for a person to buy the 讻转讜讘讛. On the other hand, he's taking a risk. What happens if she dies first? Then her husband will inherit her, and automatically, the 讻转讜讘讛 will be nullified, and the husband doesn't have to pay anything. So then the one that buys the 讻转讜讘讛 before will lose the whole amount of money. So he's taking a risk. So if a woman is willing to sell her 讻转讜讘讛, definitely she will not get for it the full amount of money that it says in the 讻转讜讘讛. But she could sell it for a much lower price, because a person would be willing to take the risk and maybe make some money. So therefore the 讚讬谉 that we make these 注讚讬诐 讝讜诪诪讬诐 pay to the woman the amount of money that the 讻转讜讘讛 is worth right now. Since they wanted her to lose the 讻转讜讘讛, they claimed that she already received the 讻转讜讘讛, so they wanted her to lose the 讻转讜讘讛. On the other hand, it's a 住驻拽 whether they really made her lose the 讻转讜讘讛 or not. So therefore, they only pay the amount of money that the 讻转讜讘讛 is worth now based on that 住驻拽. There is a value in the 讻转讜讘讛, how much she could sell it for based on that 住驻拽. So that's how much the 注讚讬诐 讝讜诪诪讬诐 would have to pay her. But the expression, the way it's said in the 讘专讬讬转讗 was, that the risk is that she might become a widow or a divorcee, and therefore, the 讻转讜讘讛 would be worth something. On the other hand, maybe she will die first, then her husband will inherit her, and the person who bought the 讻转讜讘讛 would not get anything. And it has to be made clear that when we talk here about the 讻转讜讘讛, we don't only mean the money that the husband will owe to the wife because of the 讻转讜讘讛, meaning the $200 that he wrote for a 讘转讜诇讛, or the $100 that he's supposed to write for an 讗诇诪谞讛. We're talking about all the possessions that she also brought into the marriage, because in the 讻转讜讘讛 they used to write that this and this woman brought into the marriage a certain amount of property, that when she is divorced, or if her husband dies, it all goes back to her. When she sells the 讻转讜讘讛, she sells everything. She sells the amount of money that the husband promised to give her for the 讻转讜讘讛, plus she sells everything that's mentioned there, that if her husband divorces her, or her husband dies, so then instead of her getting all the possessions back, these possessions would go to the buyer of the 讻转讜讘讛. And that's what the 讘专讬讬转讗 means, that the risk is that what happens if she dies first? So then her husband will inherit her, so not only will her husband not have to pay the money that he promised for the 讻转讜讘讛, but her husband will also take all the possessions, all the property that she brought in into the marriage, and the one that bought the 讻转讜讘讛 would not get anything. Now we

Questioning acceptance of 转拽谞转 讗讜砖讗

say, 讗讬 住诇拽讗 讚注转讱, if we're going to think that 诇讬转讗 诇转拽谞转 讗讜砖讗, that we do not accept the 转拽谞讛 of 讗讜砖讗, where they said that if a woman sells from her properties in the lifetime of her husband, and then she dies, her husband can go back to the 诇拽讜讞讜转 and take it away, if we do not accept that, and we say that the husband cannot take away from the 诇拽讜讞讜转, so then 讗诪讗讬 讬专砖谞讛 讘注诇讛? Why do we say if she dies, her husband would inherit her? 转讝讘讬谉 诇讻转讜讘转讛 诇讙诪专讬, let her sell her 讻转讜讘讛 completely, so then her husband would not be able to go to the 诇拽讜讞讜转 and take it away. And therefore, the one that buys the 讻转讜讘讛 is not really taking a risk, because even if the wife will die first, nevertheless, the husband will have no right to take away her possessions that she sold to him that were mentioned in the 讻转讜讘讛. So whatever happens, he gets those properties that belonged to the wife before. So why do we say that a person would pay less because he is taking a risk? He is not taking any risk, because the sale is valid, and even if she dies first, he gets her possessions that she sold to him. And since we say that we are afraid that if she dies first, then her husband will 讬专砖 her, that obviously shows that even if she sells her possessions, after she dies, the husband is able to go to the 诇拽讜讞讜转, to the buyer, and take the possessions away. So here we see that we do accept the 转拽谞讛 of 讗讜砖讗. 讗诪专 讗讘讬讬, but 讗讘讬讬 said, it's no 专讗讬讛 that we accept the 转拽谞讛 of 讗讜砖讗. Maybe 讘讗诪转 we don't accept the 转拽谞讛 of 讗讜砖讗, and therefore, a woman if she sells from her 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙, the husband later on cannot come and take it away from the buyer. And nevertheless, we consider it a risk because even if we don't accept the 转拽谞讛 of 讗讜砖讗, and therefore, the husband cannot take it away, but that only would apply to 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙. 讗讬 讗诪专讜 讘谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙, 讬讗诪专讜 讘谞讻住讬 爪讗谉 讘专讝诇? That if they said this concerning 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙, does that mean that the same thing would apply to 谞讻住讬 爪讗谉 讘专讝诇? Concerning 谞讻住讬 爪讗谉 讘专讝诇, even not because of 转拽谞转 讗讜砖讗, the husband could still go to the 诇拽讜讞讜转 and take it away, because 注诇 驻讬 讚讬谉 she had no right to sell. Now the

Difference between 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙 and 爪讗谉 讘专讝诇

difference between 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙 and 谞讻住讬 爪讗谉 讘专讝诇 is, that when a woman brings property into the marriage, they could be or in the category of 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙 or 谞讻住讬 爪讗谉 讘专讝诇. In both of these cases, the husband would only eat the fruit, meaning he would only get the profits, and if he divorces her or he dies, the things would go back to her, but it depends how it would go back to her. Those things that were in the category of 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙 would go back to her as it is at the time when it goes back to her. Whether it depreciated from the time she brought it into the marriage or it went up in value, it goes back to her as it is at the time when she gets it back. But if it was brought in in the category of 谞讻住讬 爪讗谉 讘专讝诇, 爪讗谉 讘专讝诇 means metal cattle. Just like metal doesn't change, so too this is something that doesn't change, that when it goes back to her, it goes back to her in the same way it was when she brought it. Whether it depreciated or it went up in value makes no difference to her. You give it back to her based on the value it had when she brought it in. And that's why it's called 谞讻住讬 爪讗谉 讘专讝诇, it's like metal cattle. That just like if she would have brought in something that is very strong and doesn't change, she would get it back the same as she brought it in, so too with these properties, these possessions, she gets it back as it was when she brought it in. And essentially, the difference between 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙 and 谞讻住讬 爪讗谉 讘专讝诇 is, that by 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙 we consider it the whole time as if it's hers. Even though the husband eats the fruit, meaning he takes the profits, but nevertheless it is still hers. And therefore, if there is a loss, she is the one that suffers the loss. If there is a gain, she is the one that gets the gain. And therefore, the 讚讬谉 is that when she gets it back, she gets it back as it is at the time when she gets it back, because really she's not getting it back, the whole time it was really hers, and whatever happens to it during the whole time, it's as if it happened to her object. But concerning 谞讻住讬 爪讗谉 讘专讝诇, it's as if we say that when she brings it in, she gives it away to her husband. Her husband is responsible for what he got, but it is not that it is the whole time in her possession. And therefore, if there was a loss or there was a gain, it wasn't that she lost it or that she gained, because it wasn't in her possession at that time. And therefore, when the time comes for the husband to give it back, he has to give it back as it was at the time when he received it, because when he receives it, he gets something from her, so she knows that he got from her something which has a certain value, and then it's in his 专砖讜转 now, and whatever happens to it is in his 专砖讜转, and therefore when he gives it back, he has to give it back to her in the same value as it was when he got it. So it comes out that 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙 is considered the whole time as if it's hers, 谞讻住讬 爪讗谉 讘专讝诇 is considered the whole time as if it's the possession of the husband. So even if not for the 转拽谞转 讗讜砖讗, and therefore concerning 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙 we would say that if she sold it, the sale is valid, and the husband cannot go and take it away from the 诇拽讜讞讜转, because it was hers thing that she sold, but definitely concerning 谞讻住讬 爪讗谉 讘专讝诇, she can't do it, because 谞讻住讬 爪讗谉 讘专讝诇 after it goes under the 专砖讜转 of the husband, it's out of her possession completely. It's as if she gave it away to the husband completely, he just has a responsibility that eventually, if the conditions will fit, he will have to pay her back, but at the time it is the husband's, and therefore she had no right to sell it. So therefore, if she did sell it, the husband could go to the 诇拽讜讞讜转 and take it back. So therefore, if a person buys the 讻转讜讘讛 from a woman in the lifetime of her husband, so he is taking a risk, even if not for the 转拽谞转 讗讜砖讗, because even though concerning the 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙 the husband will not be able to take it back if she dies first, but the 谞讻住讬 爪讗谉 讘专讝诇 definitely the husband will take back, will not allow him, the 诇讜拽讞, to keep, so therefore he is taking a risk. And therefore, there is only a 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 he would pay. And therefore, it says in the 讘专讬讬转讗, that when a person buys a 讻转讜讘讛, he takes a risk, that maybe she will die first and the husband would 讬专砖 her, even if not for the 转拽谞转 讗讜砖讗, there is still a risk involved, because the 谞讻住讬 爪讗谉 讘专讝诇 definitely the husband would 讬专砖, and therefore it is a risk for the buyer. Then the 讙诪专讗 says, 讗诪专 讗讘讬讬, 讗讘讬讬 said, 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛, 讛讜讗讬诇 讜讗转讗 诇讬讚谉, since it came to us, that we already discussed the concept of 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛, which is the value of the 讻转讜讘讛 during the lifetime of the husband, Since we already spoke about that, 谞讬诪讗 讘讛 诪讬诇转讗, let us say something about it. Let me say a 讚讬谉 concerning the 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛. That what? That 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 诇讗砖讛 讛讜讬. The 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 goes to the wife. In other words, if a woman does sell her 讻转讜讘讛, and she gets that 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛, so that stays with her, and the husband does not take it. Even though concerning all possessions that a woman has, we know the 讚讬谉 is that it goes to the husband, that he eats the fruit, takes the profit that comes from that possession, but the 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 that she gets for her 讻转讜讘讛 will not be given to the husband, that stays with her completely.

Who receives the 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛?

讗讬 住诇拽讗 讚注转讱 讚讘注诇 讛讜讬, because if you would think the 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 has to go to the husband too, 诇讬诪专讜 诇讛 注讚讬诐, let the witnesses that became 讝讜诪诪讬谉 say to her, 诪讗讬 讗驻住讚讬谞讱, what did we make you lose? And we said before they made her lose the value of the 讻转讜讘讛 as it's now, which means the 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 of the 讻转讜讘讛, but they could say to her, we didn't even make you lose that either, because 讗讬 讛讜讜转 诪讝讘谞转 诇讛 讘讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛, even if you would have sold your 讻转讜讘讛 for the 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛, 讘注诇 讛讜讛 砖拽讬诇 诪讬谞讱, your husband would have taken it from you. So you wouldn't have had it anyway. So there is no loss to you at all that we tried to give, and therefore they shouldn't have to pay anything. And since the 讘专讬讬转讗 says that the 注讚讬诐 do have to pay her the 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 because that is a loss they wanted to cause, because this 讻转讜讘讛 at that point has that value, and according to their testimony that the 讻转讜讘讛 was given already, she couldn't have sold it for that 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛, so she lost that 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛, therefore they have to pay her that 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛. So that proves that if she would have sold it, she would have kept that money, and that money wouldn't have gone to her husband. Because if it would have gone to her husband, then they could say, we didn't make you lose anything. 专讘 砖诇诪谉 讗诪专, so

Rav Shlomo on 讘讬转讗 profit argument

专讘 砖诇诪谉 said, 诪砖讜诐 讚讗讬讻讗 专讜讜讞 讘讬转讗, that 讘讗诪转 it's no 专讗讬讛, could be that the money does go to the husband, and still they cannot say to her that we didn't make you lose anything because you would have to give the money to your husband. She could say, it is considered a loss to me, because I want the house to be comfortable, and by me selling the 讻转讜讘讛 and having the money and giving it to my husband, my husband will be able to provide for my needs easier because he will have more money. The house will be more comfortable because there will be more money in the house. So therefore it is considered a loss to the wife, and therefore there is no 专讗讬讛 that the 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 does not go to the husband, but stays with her. Then the 讙诪专讗 says, 讗诪专 专讘讗, 专讘讗 said, 讛诇讻转讗 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 诇讗砖讛, that the 讛诇讻讛 is that the 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 goes to the wife, 讜讗讬谉 讛讘注诇 讗讜讻诇 驻讬专讜转, and the husband does not eat the fruit, he does not get it for the profit that it brings. 诪讗讬 讟注诪讗, what is the reason? Because 驻讬专讗 转拽讬谞讜 诇讬讛 专讘谞谉, the 专讘谞谉 were 诪转拽谉 that a husband eat the fruit, meaning get the profit from her possession, but 驻讬专讗 讚驻讬专讗 诇讗 转拽讬谞讜 诇讬讛 专讘谞谉, the fruit of the fruit the 讞讻诪讬诐 were not 诪转拽谉. And therefore, to say that a husband should get her 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛, the 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 itself is a profit that she brought in. Now, he should get the profit from that profit, that the 讞讻诪讬诐 were not 诪转拽谉. And as 转讜住驻讜转 explains, it only means in a case where it came in from the outside. But the fruit of the fruit that comes directly from her possession, that a husband does get. For instance, if she owns cattle, and the cattle give birth to calves, so these calves belong to the husband, because they are the profit that her possessions brought in. Now, the children of those calves would also belong to the husband. And we do not say that since they are 驻讬专讗 of 驻讬专讗, they are profit of profit, so that should not go to the husband, because there it came directly from her possessions. The only thing is that when it comes from the outside, that's when we say 驻讬专讗 讚驻讬专讗 is not for the husband. For instance, in a case like here where it comes from the outside, the money that she makes for selling her 讻转讜讘讛, or another case that the 讙诪专讗 says in 讻转讜讘讜转 讚祝 注状讟, where it says that if someone stole a 讘讛诪讛 that belongs to her, that was from her 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙, so the 讙谞讘 has to pay 讻驻诇, the 讙谞讘 has to pay double, that 讻驻诇 goes to the wife, not to the husband. And the reason is because it is 驻讬专讗 讚驻讬专讗. So there, too, it is because it comes from the outside. But if it would come directly from the 驻讬专讗 that came directly from her possessions, so then the 讚讬谉 would be that it would go to the husband. Then the 讙诪专讗 continues, 讻讬

Rav Pappa and Rav Huna cite 转拽谞转 讗讜砖讗

讗转讗 专讘 驻驻讗 讜专讘 讛讜谞讗 讘专讬讛 讚专讘 讬讛讜砖注 诪讘讬 专讘, when 专讘 驻驻讗 and 专讘 讛讜谞讗 讘专讬讛 讚专讘 讬讛讜砖注 came from the 讬砖讬讘讛, 讗诪专讜, they said, 转谞讬谞讗 诇转拽谞转 讗讜砖讗, 讘讗诪转 we learn in the 诪砖谞讛 the 转拽谞转 讗讜砖讗. We have a 专讗讬讛 from the 诪砖谞讛 that there is such a thing as 转拽谞转 讗讜砖讗. Because it says in the 诪砖谞讛, 讛注讘讚 讜讛讗砖讛 驻讙讬注转谉 专注讛, a goyish slave or a woman, it is bad if you meet up with them. Why? Because 讛讞讜讘诇 讘讛诐 讞讬讬讘, if someone injures them, you have to pay, 讜讛诐 砖讞讘诇讜 讘讗讞专讬诐 驻讟讜专讬谉, but if they injured others, they are 驻讟讜专. And the reason they are 驻讟讜专 is because they don't own anything. Anything that a 注讘讚 or an 讗砖讛 owns belongs to the master or to the husband, and therefore they can't pay because they have no money from which to pay. Now the question is, 讜讗讬 住诇拽讗 讚注转讱 诇讬转 诇讬讛 诇转拽谞转 讗讜砖讗, if you're going to say that there is no 转拽谞转 讗讜砖讗, so then how could we say that a woman doesn't have anything to pay from? 转讝讘讬谉 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙, let her sell her 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙, 讜转转谉 诇讬讛, to give him, let her pay for the injury that she caused through her 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙. If we accept 转拽谞转 讗讜砖讗, then we understand why she has no money to pay, because her 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙 she cannot sell, because even if she does, her husband could go to the 诇拽讜讞讜转 later on and take it back. But if we would not have the 转拽谞转 讗讜砖讗, which would mean that if she sells her 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙 the sale is valid, so why doesn't she sell the 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙 and pay for the injury that she caused? And since we say that she doesn't have to pay, obviously, we do accept 转拽谞转 讗讜砖讗. They said to him, 讜诇讟注诪讬讱, and according to you that you hold that there is a 转拽谞转 讗讜砖讗, it's still not understood. 谞讛讬 谞诪讬 讚讗讬转 诇讬讛 转拽谞转 讗讜砖讗, even though there is such a 转拽谞转 讗讜砖讗, 讜诇讗 诪爪讬 诪讝讘谞讗 诇讙诪专讬, and she cannot sell her 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙 completely, but 转讝讘讬谉 诇谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙 讘讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛, let her sell the 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙 with the 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛, 讜转转谉 诇讬讛 and pay for it. 诇讻讗讜专讛, she still has some money, even with the 转拽谞转 讗讜砖讗. Let her sell her 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙, and there is a risk the person will take when he buys it. If she

Risks of selling 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙

dies first, then he won't get anything, the husband will take it back. If he dies first, then the buyer will keep it. So there's a risk he is taking, but nevertheless, maybe he will gain. So a person would pay some money for her 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙 based on the risk. So why doesn't she sell her 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙 for the 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 at least, so some money she could get for her 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙, and why doesn't she do that and pay for the injury? 讗诇讗, we must say, why don't we say that? 讚诇讬转 诇讛, it's in the case where she doesn't have that when it's bad to meet up with her, when she has no 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙. Then there is no way she could pay. 讛讻讗 谞诪讬, so too, if there is no 转拽谞转 讗讜砖讗, you could say 讚诇讬转 诇讛, that she doesn't have. So you have no 专讗讬讛 that there is a 转拽谞转 讗讜砖讗, because otherwise, why can't she sell 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙? Because we must say it's speaking in a case where she has no 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙. But then the 讙诪专讗 asks, even if she has no 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙, 讜转讝讘讬谉 讻转讜讘转讛 讘讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 讜转转谉 诇讬讛, let her sell the 讻转讜讘讛 itself, not the 谞讻住讬 诪诇讜讙, but the 讻转讜讘讛 where it says that the husband promises to give her the $200 or the $100, whatever it was, if he divorces her, or if he dies, and that has a 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 right now too. A person would buy it and pay a certain amount for it, taking the risk that maybe he will get the full amount if the husband dies or divorces her. So why can't she sell her 讻转讜讘讛? And the question is back. Why do we say that a woman is 驻讟讜专 from paying because she has no money? No matter what, she always is able to raise some money. She's always able to sell her 讻转讜讘讛 讘讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛. So why don't we say that a woman who caused an injury to a person has to sell her 讻转讜讘讛, and the money she gets will go towards the injury? But the 讙诪专讗 says she can't do it because 讛讗 诪谞讬, this goes according to who? 专讘讬 诪讗讬专, it goes according to 专讘讬 诪讗讬专, 讚讗诪专, that says, 讗住讜专 诇讗讚诐 砖讬砖讛讗 讗转 讗砖转讜 讗驻讬诇讜 砖注讛 讗讞转 讘诇讗 讻转讜讘讛, a person is not allowed to stay with his wife even for one moment without a 讻转讜讘讛. So

Why selling 讻转讜讘讛 endangers marital status

how can we say she should sell a 讻转讜讘讛? As soon as she sells her 讻转讜讘讛, she's not allowed to stay with her husband, and therefore she's not allowed to sell her 讻转讜讘讛. But the 讙诪专讗 asks, why not? 讟注诪讗 诪讗讬? What is the reason? Why is a person not allowed to stay with his wife without a 讻转讜讘讛 even for a moment? 讻讚讬 砖诇讗 转讛讗 拽诇讛 讘注讬谞讬讜 诇讛讜爪讬讗讛, in order for him not to be easy for him to divorce her. A person knows that he could divorce his wife and it won't cost him anything, so anytime he will get angry at her, he will throw her a 讙讟 and divorce her. So 讞讻诪讬诐 said that in order to make it hard on him, if he knows that when he divorces his wife he has to pay her a certain amount of money, then he won't divorce her so fast. So that is the reason why a person is not allowed to live with his wife without a 讻转讜讘讛. But if so, 讛讻讗 诇讗 诪讙专砖 诇讛, in this case, when she sells her 讻转讜讘讛 to somebody else, he still won't divorce her. It's still going to be just as hard for him to divorce her, because 讚讗讬 诪讙专砖 诇讛, if he divorces her, 讗转讜 讛谞讱 讚讝讘谞讛, so the people who bought the 讻转讜讘讛 will come, 讙讘讜 诇讻转讜讘转讛, and they will take the 讻转讜讘讛. What difference is it whether he will have to pay to her the 讻转讜讘讛 if he divorces her, or will have to pay to the one that bought the 讻转讜讘讛 from her? In both cases, it'll cost the husband money if he divorces her. So therefore, if a woman sells her 讻转讜讘讛, the 讚讬谉 should be that the husband is allowed to live with her even though she doesn't have the 讻转讜讘讛, because the reason why she must have a 讻转讜讘讛 still exists. The reason was so it should cost him money if he'll divorce her. In this case, it'll also cost him money, because if he divorces her, the person who bought the 讻转讜讘讛 will come to the husband and collect the money. 讗诇讗, therefore, we must give another reason why if a woman injured somebody, we don't tell her to sell her 讻转讜讘讛 讘讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛, and whatever she gets for it should go towards the injury. Because

Theoretical value of 讻转讜讘讛 and 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛

讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 诪讬诇讬 谞讬谞讛讜, because it's considered that 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 is only words. 讜诪讬诇讬 诇讗 诪砖转注讘讚讬. Words are not 诪砖讜注讘讚. 讘讗诪转, the 砖讟专 of the 讻转讜讘讛 is not mature till when the husband is obligated to pay, which is if he divorces her or if he dies. Before that, the 讻转讜讘讛 really is not worth anything. It's only words. It's only a theoretical value, and a theoretical value is not 诪砖讜注讘讚, is not mortgaged to the injury. It is not mortgaged to somebody that she owes money. So when she caused the injury to somebody, we don't tell her to sell the 讻转讜讘讛, because we only would tell her to sell something which is 诪砖讜注讘讚 to the debt that she owes. But since this whole value of the 讻转讜讘讛 as of now is only a theory, and that is not 诪砖讜注讘讚 to the debt that she owes, therefore we don't force her to sell her 讻转讜讘讛. But the 讙诪专讗 says, 讗诇讗 诪讗讬, why not? Why do we say that this is only a theoretical value? 诪讬诇讬 讚诪讝讚讘谞讬 讘讚讬谞专讬 谞讬谞讛讜. Isn't this words, isn't this a theoretical value that could be sold for actual 讚讬谞专讬诐? In other words, even though it's only a theoretical thing, but she could get money for that theoretical thing. If she sells the 讻转讜讘讛, she at this moment could get money for it. So it does have a practical value. And therefore the question is back: why don't we force her to sell the 讻转讜讘讛, and the money she will get she should pay for the injury? 讗诇讗

砖诪讜讗诇鈥檚 rule on selling debt documents

诪砖讜诐 讚砖诪讜讗诇. The reason is for, because of what 砖诪讜讗诇 said. 讚讗诪专 砖诪讜讗诇, 砖诪讜讗诇 said, 讛诪讜讻专 砖讟专 讞讜讘 诇讞讘讬专讜, if someone sells a 砖讟专 讞讜讘, a document where it says that someone owes him money, he sells it to his friend, so now the one that bought the 砖讟专 讞讜讘 is the one that's supposed to collect the money. 讜讞讝专 讜诪讞诇讜, if the seller, the one that was the original 诪诇讜讛, the original person that was owed the money, if he is 诪讜讞诇, he releases the person who owes the money from paying, 诪讞讜诇, it is 诪讞讜诇. It is forgiven. 讜讗驻讬诇讜 讬讜专砖 诪讜讞诇. Not only that, even if he died and his son took over, so his son or anybody else who inherits could be 诪讜讞诇 that 讞讜讘. For instance, if 专讗讜讘谉 owed 砖诪注讜谉 money, and 砖诪注讜谉 sold the 砖讟专 to 诇讜讬, so now 专讗讜讘谉 owes the money to 诇讜讬. But nevertheless, 砖诪注讜谉 or his 讬讜专砖 could come and be 诪讜讞诇 the 讞讜讘. Because after all, even though practically speaking 专讗讜讘谉 would have to pay the money to 诇讜讬, but still he owes it to 砖诪注讜谉. And because 砖诪注讜谉 sold the 砖讟专, that's why he has to pay to 诇讜讬. But he really owes it still to 砖诪注讜谉, and therefore if 砖诪注讜谉 or his 讬讜专砖 is 诪讜讞诇, the 讚讬谉 is it is 诪讞讜诇. And the same would apply to a 讻转讜讘讛. If a woman sells her 讻转讜讘讛 to another person, if she wants, she is able to be 诪讜讞诇 that 讻转讜讘讛. Since the 讞讜讘 of the 讻转讜讘讛 still is to her, it is only that when the time will come to pay, they'll have to pay to the buyer because she sold the 讻转讜讘讛. But the debt is still to her, so if she wants, she can be 诪讜讞诇 the 讻转讜讘讛. So

Potential loss to buyer if 讻转讜讘讛 is 诪讜讞诇

therefore, the 讞讻诪讬诐 did not say that if she causes an injury to somebody, she should have to sell her 讻转讜讘讛, because we would do this in order to have her pay for the person she injured, but on the other hand, this might cause a loss to the other person who bought the 讻转讜讘讛. Because what will happen if she will be 诪讜讞诇 the 讻转讜讘讛? So the person who bought the 讻转讜讘讛 will have a loss. So we don't want that she should sell the 讻转讜讘讛 in order to pay this person on the 讞砖讘讜谉 that she will cause a loss to somebody else. But the 讙诪专讗 asks, 讗诪专讬, I will tell you, 讝讘讜谞讛 转讬讝讘讜谉 讜转讬转讬讘 诇讬讛, let her sell the 讻转讜讘讛 and pay for the injury. 讜讗讬 诪讞诇讛 诇讙讘讬 讘注诇 转讬诪讞讜诇. If she will be 诪讜讞诇, she will be 诪讜讞诇. Why should we at this point worry about she, that she might be 诪讜讞诇 to her husband, and therefore the person who will buy the 讻转讜讘讛 will have a loss? At this point we shouldn't care about it, because who knows if it'll happen or not. At this point, she owes money for the injury. Let's tell her to sell her 讻转讜讘讛 and pay for the injury. What will happen later will happen later. We'll see, if she'll be 诪讜讞诇 she'll be 诪讜讞诇, so that person will lose. But why care about it now? But the 讙诪专讗 answers, 讗诪专讬, I will tell you, 讻诇 诇讙讘讬 讘注诇 讜讚讗讬 诪讞诇讛. When it comes concerning her husband, we are sure that she will be 诪讜讞诇. It's not a 住驻拽. So since we are definite that she will be 诪讜讞诇, 讜讗驻住讜讚讬 诇讬讛 诇讛讛讜讗 讝讘讬谞讗 讘讬讚讬讬诐 诇讗 诪驻住讚讬谞谉. So go outright and tell her to sell it, and outright have a loss caused to another person, that we don't want to do. If it would be in order to pay to that other person, that we don't do. And then the 讙诪专讗 says, 讜讻讬 转讬诪讗, you might say, 转讬讝讘谞讛 诇讛讛讜讗 讚讞讘诇讛 讘讬讛 讘讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛, let her sell it to the person that she made the injury in. Let she give it to him 讘讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛. And in this case, 讚讗讬 诪讞诇讛 诇讙讘讬 讘注诇, even if she will be 诪讜讞诇 this debt to her husband, 诇讗 拽讗 诪驻住讬讚, so no one will have a loss, because 讚讛砖转讗 谞诪讬 诇讗讜 诪讬讚讬 拽讗 讬讛讬讘 诇讛. Because now also he's not getting anything. This person who was injured, he won't have a loss. Let her give it to him for the 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛. In other words, if the 讻转讜讘讛, let's say, is worth at this point with the 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 $100, let her give the 讻转讜讘讛 to the person that she injured. So that's a payment of $100. Now, what are we afraid of? Maybe she'll go ahead and be 诪讜讞诇 this 讞讜讘, this 讻转讜讘讛 to her husband. So then the one that received the 讻转讜讘讛 won't get anything, but still he won't lose anything. Because if we don't say this, that means that she doesn't pay him anything at all. Now she's giving him the 讻转讜讘讛. So there is definitely no loss. If she won't be 诪讜讞诇, then he has a 讻转讜讘讛 which has a value of $100, let's say. If she will be 诪讜讞诇, so he will get nothing, but since he didn't pay for it, and otherwise he wouldn't get anything anyway from her because she has no other money, so there is no loss to him anyway. So why don't we make her do this? Why don't we say that if a woman injures a person, she should have to give him away the 讻转讜讘讛 讘讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛? 讙诪专讗 says, 住讜祝 住讜祝 讻诇 诇讙讘讬 讘注诇 讜讚讗讬 诪讞诇讛. But 住讜祝 住讜祝, since it's concerning her husband, she will definitely be 诪讜讞诇. 讜讗讟专讜讞讬 讘讬转 讚讬谞讗 讘讻讚讬 诇讗 诪讟专讞讬谞谉, and we are not 诪讟专讬讞 the 讘讬转 讚讬谉 for nothing. Since we know for sure she's going to be 诪讜讞诇, so in essence, he's not getting anything anyway. So why make her give the 讻转讜讘讛 to him, and later on when she will be 诪讜讞诇, he will come to 讘讬转 讚讬谉 and they will tell him that you have no claim because she was 诪讜讞诇? So why make him come to 讘讬转 讚讬谉 for nothing, and be 诪讟专讬讞 the 讘讬转 讚讬谉 for nothing, that's why the 讞讻诪讬诐 say she should not give him the 讻转讜讘讛. And that's why the 讚讬谉 remains that a woman who injured someone else is 驻讟讜专 from paying. Then the 讙诪专讗 says, 讗诇讗 讛讗 讚转谞讬讗, but when we learn in a 讘专讬讬转讗, 讜讻谉 讛讬讗 砖讞讘诇讛 讘讘注诇讛 诇讗 讛驻住讬讚讛 讻转讜讘转讛, that if a woman injured her husband, she doesn't lose her 讻转讜讘讛. The question is 讗诪讗讬? Why shouldn't she lose her 讻转讜讘讛? Why shouldn't the 讚讬谉 be that 转讝讘谞讬谞讛 诇讛讛讬讗 讻转讜讘转讛 诇讘注诇讛, she should have to sell the 讻转讜讘讛 to her husband 讘讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛, for the value of the 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛, 讜讘讛讱 讞讘诇讛, with this because of this injury, let her give the 讻转讜讘讛 to her husband as payment for the injury she made in her husband in the value of the 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 of the 讻转讜讘讛? 讜讗讬 诪讞诇讛 诇讙讘讬 讘注诇 诇讬转 诇讬讛 驻住讬讚讗, and if she will be 诪讜讞诇 to her husband, there will be no loss. Because 诪诪讛 谞驻砖讱, the husband will be 驻讟讜专 from paying the 讻转讜讘讛. If she won't be 诪讜讞诇, then he is 驻讟讜专 from paying because this is payment for the injury. If she will be 诪讜讞诇, then he is 驻讟讜专 from paying because of her 诪讜讞诇, but no one will lose here. And there is no such thing as saying that we don't want to be 诪讟专讬讞 the 讘讬转 讚讬谉 for nothing because he won't even come to 讘讬转 讚讬谉. Because she is going to be 诪讜讞诇 to him, so he will know that he has no claim to come to 讘讬转 讚讬谉 for. So in that case, why shouldn't the 讚讬谉 be that if she injures her husband, she should have to give him the 讻转讜讘讛 讘讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛? But 转讜住驻讜转 asks a 拽砖讬讗: how could the 讙诪专讗 say that even if she'll be 诪讜讞诇 the 讻转讜讘讛 to her husband, the husband will have no loss? But it is not so, there will be a loss! Because if the 讚讬谉 would be that she doesn't have to give him the 讻转讜讘讛, so then, if she gets divorced later on, she would still owe him the money for the injury. If, on the other hand, we would say she has to give him the 讻转讜讘讛, and then she will be 诪讜讞诇 the 讻转讜讘讛, so then after he divorces her, he won't be able to collect, because she already paid him with the 讻转讜讘讛. So it comes out that there will be a loss by forcing her to give him the 讻转讜讘讛 讘讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛. But 转讜住驻讜转 says that no, since now if we do not force her to give the 讻转讜讘讛 to the husband, she doesn't pay him anything, so it is not considered a loss, because later on, if he'll divorce her, he'll be able to collect. Because who knows if it'll come to it? Maybe she will die first, or who knows if it'll ever come to that? Therefore, we look at it the way it's now, and since now, if she doesn't give him the 讻转讜讘讛 now, he definitely doesn't collect; on the other hand, if she gives him the 讻转讜讘讛, there is no loss, because even if she is 诪讜讞诇, there is still no loss, therefore the 讙诪专讗's 拽砖讬讗 is, why shouldn't the 讚讬谉 be that if she injures her husband, she should have to give him the 讻转讜讘讛 讘讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛? And the 讙诪专讗 answers, 讛讗 讜讚讗讬 讚专讘讬 诪讗讬专 讛讬讗. This is definitely according to 专讘讬 诪讗讬专. 讚讗诪专, that he says, 讗住讜专 诇讗讚诐 砖讬砖讛讗 注诐 讗砖转讜 讗驻讬诇讜 砖注讛 讗讞转 讘诇讗 讻转讜讘讛, that a person is not allowed to stay with his wife even for a short while without a 讻转讜讘讛.

Reason for 讻转讜讘讛 requirement: preventing easy divorce

讜讟注诪讗 诪讗讬? What is the reason? 讻讚讬 砖诇讗 转讛讗 拽诇讛 讘注讬谞讬讜 诇讛讜爪讬讗讛, in order for it not to be easy in his eyes for him to divorce her. If he knows that when he divorces his wife he has to pay her money, he won't divorce her so fast. So 讛讻讗 诪讙专砖 诇讛 讜讙讘讬 诇讛 诇讞讘诇讛 诪讬谞讛. Here, if we're going to force her to give away the 讻转讜讘讛 to him as payment for the injury, so then now he will definitely divorce her and he would collect from this 讻转讜讘讛 the compensation for his injury. Because now he will get everything that's mentioned in the 讻转讜讘讛 that belongs to her will go to him. And therefore we don't say that she should give the 讻转讜讘讛 away to her husband 讘讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 as payment for her injury, because now he might divorce her in order to collect from the 讻转讜讘讛, and a person is not allowed to live with a wife without a 讻转讜讘讛 for this reason, to make it hard for him to divorce her. But then the 讙诪专讗 asks, 讗讬 讛讻讬, if so, 讛砖转讗 谞诪讬, now too, that we say that she doesn't give him the 讻转讜讘讛 讘讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛, and she doesn't pay anything to him, still 诪讙专砖 诇讛, he could divorce her, 讜讙讘讬 诇讛 讘讞讘讜诇讬 诪讬谞讛, and he will collect for the injury from her. The whole reason you have to have a 讻转讜讘讛, so it should be hard for him to divorce her, he should feel that by divorcing her he will lose, but in this case, he will feel he will gain by divorcing her. Because as soon as he divorces her, he will be able to collect for the injury that she caused him. While if he doesn't divorce her, he won't be able to collect. So 讗讚专讘讛, here he especially will divorce her. So what do we gain by saying that she should not give him the 讻转讜讘讛 讘讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 as payment, because then he will divorce her, but by not giving the 讻转讜讘讛 to him, he also will divorce her, because he'll want to collect the money for the injury. So the 讙诪专讗 says, 讻讙讜谉 讚谞驻讬砖讗 讻转讜讘转讛. For instance, the case is where the 讻转讜讘讛 is a lot of money. So therefore, 讚诪砖讜诐 讛讛讜讗 驻讜专转讗 诇讗 诪驻住讬讚 讟讜讘讗. Because of that little bit, he won't lose a lot. In other words, if the injury was not that much, the 讻转讜讘讛 was much more than the injury, so what'll happen? He will divorce her in order to collect the money for the injury, but at the same time, he will have to pay her the full amount of the 讻转讜讘讛. So if the full amount of the 讻转讜讘讛 is more than the value of the injury, then it's not worth for him to divorce her. And on the other hand, if we will make her give him the 讻转讜讘讛 讘讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛, then he will divorce her in order to collect for his injury that's in the 讻转讜讘讛. So therefore, in order for him not to divorce her, as 专讘讬 诪讗讬专 said that we don't want to make it easy for a husband to divorce her, therefore the 讚讬谉 is that she should not give her 讻转讜讘讛 to him 讘讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛. But then the 讙诪专讗 asks, 讜讗讬 讚谞驻讬砖讗 讻转讜讘转讛 诪讻转讜讘讛 讚讗讜专讬讬转讗, if her 讻转讜讘讛 is more than the 讻转讜讘讛 讚讗讜专讬讬转讗, 谞讜拽诪讛 讗讻转讜讘讛 讚讗讜专讬讬转讗, let's change it and make it into 讻转讜讘讛 讚讗讜专讬讬转讗, 讜讗讬讚讱, and the rest, 转讝讘讬谉 诇讛 谞讬讛诇讬讛, let her sell it to him, 讘讞讘诇讬讛, for the injury. 诪讚讬谞讗, a 讻转讜讘讛 for a 讘转讜诇讛, for a virgin, is 200. A 讻转讜讘讛 for an 讗诇诪谞讛, for a widow, or for a divorc茅e, is a 100. Now we just said that here we're talking in a case where the 讻转讜讘讛 is a lot of money, more than the injury. Now, if the 讻转讜讘讛 is a lot, meaning even more than you're supposed to give her 注诇 驻讬 讚讬谉, because a person is able to add to the 讻转讜讘讛 as much as he wants. He must give the minimum of 200 or a 100, but if he wants, he can add more. And since we said now that this 讻转讜讘讛 is more than the injury, obviously the 讻转讜讘讛 is a big 讻转讜讘讛. So if the 讻转讜讘讛 is more than the 200 or than the 100, so then why don't we do this: Let's tell her to sell the 讻转讜讘讛 to him. 讗讬, we said that she's going to be left without a 讻转讜讘讛, and you're not allowed to stay without a 讻转讜讘讛 because he might divorce her, so let's change the 讻转讜讘讛 to the minimum. Let's take this 讻转讜讘讛 and give it to the husband, and make the husband write another 讻转讜讘讛 for the minimum of 200 or a 100, and the difference between the 200 and 100 and how much in the original 讻转讜讘讛 was, that should go to him for the 讞讘诇讛, for the injury that she made. So the 讙诪专讗 answers, 讻讙讜谉 讚诇讗 谞驻讬砖讗 讻转讜讘转讛 诪讻转讜讘讛 讚讗讜专讬讬转讗. It's a case where the 讻转讜讘讛 is not more than the 讻转讜讘讛 讚讗讜专讬讬转讗, meaning it's not more than 注诇 驻讬 讚讬谉 he's supposed to give. And in a case like that, we can't exchange the 讻转讜讘讛 for a 讻转讜讘讛 which is minimum, because the 讻转讜讘讛 is minimum. 讗讬, we said before that we're talking in a case where it is more than the 讞讘诇讛, more than the injury, and therefore he will not divorce her in order to collect the money for the injury, but at the same time have to pay for the 讻转讜讘讛, it is a case where the injury is even less than that. 讻讙讜谉 讚讛讜讛 讞讘诇讛 讗专讘注讛 讝讜讝讬. Let's say for instance, if the injury is worth four 讝讜讝. 讚诪砖讜诐 讗专讘注讛 讝讜讝讬, because of the four 讝讜讝, 诇讗 诪驻住讬讚 注砖专讬谉 讜讞诪砖讛. He will not lose 25. And this means 25 住诇注讬诐, because the minimum of a 讻转讜讘讛 is a 100. So the 讙诪专讗 picks the example even of the minimum. A 100 讝讜讝 is 25 住诇注讬诐. So if the injury is worth four 讝讜讝, he will not divorce her in order to collect the four 讝讜讝, and at the same time make himself pay the 25 住诇注讬诐. So therefore he will not divorce her. On the other hand, if we would tell her she should give him the 讻转讜讘讛 for payment for the injury 讘讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛, then he definitely would divorce her. And therefore, 讞讻诪讬诐 said better she shouldn't give the 讻转讜讘讛, and she would be 驻讟讜专 from paying. Then the 讙诪专讗 says, 讗诇讗 讛讗 讚转谞讬讗, but what is the 驻砖讟 in the 讘专讬讬转讗 that we learned? 讻砖诐 砖诇讗 转诪讻讜专 讜讛讬讗 转讞转讬讜, 讻讱 诇讗

General rule: woman does not lose ketubah when injuring

转驻住讬讚 讜讛讬讗 转讞转讬讜. As 专砖状讬 says, at this point the 讙诪专讗 thought the 驻砖讟 was as follows: that just like a woman is not allowed to sell the 讻转讜讘讛 while she is still with her husband, so too will she not lose anything of the 讻转讜讘讛 while she is under him, meaning that if she injures somebody, they don't take away her 讻转讜讘讛 as payment for the injury as long as she is still living with her husband. The question is that how can we say that as a general rule, that she will never lose her 讻转讜讘讛 if she injures somebody? 讜讛讗 讝诪谞讬谉 诪砖讻讞转 诇讛 讚诪驻住讚讗, there could be a case where she would lose. 讛讬讻讬 讚诪讬? For instance, 讻讙讜谉 讚谞驻讬砖讗 讻转讜讘转讛 诪讻转讜讘讛 讚讗讜专讬讬转讗, if her 讻转讜讘讛 is more than the minimum amount that the 转讜专讛 says she has to have in the 讻转讜讘讛. For instance, if her 讻转讜讘讛 was not 200, but was 300, so then if she injures somebody, we would make her sell the 讻转讜讘讛 and change her 讻转讜讘讛 to the minimum 200. The reason why normally she shouldn't sell her 讻转讜讘讛, because it shouldn't be easy for her husband to divorce her. But for that, it's enough if he gives her the minimum amount. So what we would do is, we would make her sell the 讻转讜讘讛, and change the 讻转讜讘讛 for a minimum amount. So she would lose that difference between the minimum amount and the amount that was actually written in her 讻转讜讘讛. That we would make her sell in order to pay for the injury. So how could the 讘专讬讬转讗 give as a general rule that a woman will never lose anything of the 讻转讜讘讛 in order to pay for an injury? The

Rava's interpretation linking to ketubah of sons

讙诪专讗 says 讗诪专 专讘讗, 专讘讗 said, 住讬驻讗 讗转讗谉 诇讻转讜讘转 讘谞讬谉 讚讻专讬谉. That this 住讬驻讗, this part of the 讘专讬讬转讗, refers to the 讚讬谉 of 讻转讜讘转 讘谞讬谉 讚讻专讬谉. 讻转讜讘转 讘谞讬谉 讚讻专讬谉 is as follows: Normally we know the 讚讬谉 is that the 讻转讜讘讛 is only given if the husband divorces the wife or if the husband dies, and then the 讬讜专砖讬诐 have to pay her the 讻转讜讘讛. But if she dies first, then no 讻转讜讘讛 is given. On the other hand, there is a clause in the 讻转讜讘讛 that says as follows: The husband says that if you die first and you have children, so then even though after you die I inherit everything that you have, nevertheless, after I die, your children will inherit the amount of money that was written in your 讻转讜讘讛 before they take a share in the general inheritance from me. Now what difference does it make whether they first take the amount of the 讻转讜讘讛 and then they take the rest as regular inheritance or not? For instance, if this man had other children from another wife, so then what we say is, first these children inherit from their father the value of the 讻转讜讘讛 of their mother. Then whatever is left over they divide equally between all the brothers. So if not for this 讚讬谉 of 讻转讜讘转 讘谞讬谉 讚讻专讬谉, then they 诇讻转讞讬诇讛 would take the whole estate and divide it equally amongst the brothers. But because of this 讚讬谉 of 讻转讜讘转 讘谞讬谉 讚讻专讬谉, so the children of that wife, the first thing they do is they inherit that amount amongst themselves. Then the rest is divided equally amongst them. And the 讚讬谉 is, if a woman sells her 讻转讜讘讛 讘讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 and then dies before her husband, so as we understand, the person who bought the 讻转讜讘讛 lost. Because since the woman died before her husband, so there is no 讻转讜讘讛 to be given here. So the one that bought the 讻转讜讘讛 lost the money that he paid for this 讻转讜讘讛. On the other hand, the children do not lose their share of 讻转讜讘转 讘谞讬谉 讚讻专讬谉. But after their father dies, so then they do and take from the inheritance of the father first the value of that 讻转讜讘讛 that was written to their mother. And even though she had sold the 讻转讜讘讛, and the one that bought the 讻转讜讘讛 lost, nevertheless the children could still claim their share in the 讻转讜讘讛 later on. And the other children cannot say to these children that if your mother would have been alive now, she wouldn't have collected the 讻转讜讘讛 because she sold her 讻转讜讘讛 to the 诇拽讜讞, so it means that the 诇拽讜讞 takes the place of your mother. Now since in this case the 诇拽讜讞 doesn't get anything, so then you don't get anything either. So we don't say that. They still have their share in the 讻转讜讘转 讘谞讬谉 讚讻专讬谉. And this is what 专讘讗 says the 讘专讬讬转讗 means:

Ketubah sale does not affect sons' inheritance

讜讛讻讬 拽转谞讬, this is what it says: 讻砖诐 砖讛诪讜讻专转 讻转讜讘转讛 诇讗讞专 诇讗 讛驻住讬讚讛 讻转讜讘转 讘谞讬谉 讚讻专讬谉, that just like when a woman sells her 讻转讜讘讛 to somebody else, she doesn't lose the 讻转讜讘转 讘谞讬谉 讚讻专讬谉, meaning that if she dies before her husband, and then her husband dies, nevertheless the children will inherit the 讻转讜讘讛 as 讻转讜讘转 讘谞讬谉 讚讻专讬谉, even though she sold the 讻转讜讘讛 before. So we don't say that the 诇拽讜讞 took her place and therefore the children cannot collect the 讻转讜讘讛 anymore. 诪讗讬 讟注诪讗? What is the, what is the reason? Why do we say that? 讝讜讝讬 讛讜讗 讚讗谞住讜讛, because money forced her. The reason she sold her 讻转讜讘讛 is because she needed money. She really didn't want to sell the 讻转讜讘讛. She just had no choice because she needed money. And therefore we don't say that the children should lose their share that they're supposed to get later on because of that. So 讻讱 诪讜讻专转 讻转讜讘转讛 诇讘注诇讛, so too, if she sells her 讻转讜讘讛 to her husband, 诇讗 讛驻住讬讚讛 讻转讜讘转 讘谞讬谉 讚讻专讬谉, she doesn't lose the 讻转讜讘转 讘谞讬谉 讚讻专讬谉. And later on, if she dies first and then her husband dies, her children will inherit the share of the 讻转讜讘讛. 诪讗讬 讟注诪讗? What is the reason? 讝讜讝讬 讛讜讗 讚讗谞住讜讛, that the money forced her. The same reason we give if she sells her 讻转讜讘讛 to some somebody else, why the children don't lose their share, so too, if she sells her 讻转讜讘讛 to her husband, we give the same reason, that she was forced because of the money, she needed the money, that's why she sold it, but it doesn't mean that the children should lose. And that's the 驻砖讟 in the 讘专讬讬转讗 where it says 讻砖诐 砖诇讗 转诪讻讜专 讜讛讬讗 转讞转讬讜, 讻讱 诇讗 转驻住讬讚 讜讛讬讗 转讞转讬讜. So it's not like we thought before that it means that just like she shouldn't sell the 讻转讜讘讛 while she is under him, so too, if she causes an injury to somebody, she doesn't lose anything from the 讻转讜讘讛, that's not the 驻砖讟. The 驻砖讟 is, that just like when she sells the 讻转讜讘讛 while she is under her husband, there is no loss, meaning that the 讻转讜讘转 讘谞讬谉 讚讻专讬谉 still stay, so too, she doesn't lose anything if she sells it to her husband, that the 讻转讜讘转 讘谞讬谉 讚讻专讬谉 still is there, and therefore, if she dies, and then her husband dies, her children will inherit her share of the 讻转讜讘讛 before they inherit the rest of the estate.

Why sages forbid selling ketubah to pay injury

Concerning what we learned earlier in the 讙诪专讗, the reason why the 讞讻诪讬诐 didn't say that if a woman injures somebody, she should have to sell her 讻转讜讘讛 讘讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛, and pay that money to the one she injured, is because of what 砖诪讜讗诇 said, that if somebody sells a 砖讟专 讞讜讘 to his friend, and then he is 诪讜讞诇, it is 诪讞讜诇. And therefore, here too, if she sells it to somebody else, we're afraid she is going to be 诪讜讞诇, and therefore, she's going to cause a loss to the one that bought the 讻转讜讘讛, so we don't make her do it to pay for the one she injured on the 讞砖讘讜谉 that she will cause a loss to somebody else. But then the 讙诪专讗 asks: what do we care? Who knows if she'll do it or not? At this moment, let her sell it and pay for the injury. If she'll be 诪讜讞诇, she'll be 诪讜讞诇. And the 讙诪专讗 answered that she will definitely be 诪讜讞诇, because it is a debt to her husband, so we assume that she will definitely be 诪讜讞诇. But 转讜住驻讜转 asks a 拽砖讬讗: But there is a way, it seems, to sell it in a way that she should not be able to be 诪讜讞诇, and that is through 诪注诪讚 砖诇砖转谉. It means that if you'll have all three people there, you'll have the husband that owes her the money, and her, and the one she is selling to. And there's a special 讚讬谉 of 诪注诪讚 砖诇砖转谉, that if you have all three there, and the first one says that he gives over the loan to the other one, so automatically it goes over, and then the middleman cannot be 诪讜讞诇. For instance, if 专讗讜讘谉 owes 砖诪注讜谉 money, and then they call 诇讜讬, and 砖诪注讜谉 says to 专讗讜讘谉 that instead of you paying me, I want you to pay 诇讜讬. So then, automatically the loan goes over to 诇讜讬. And in a case like that, 砖诪注讜谉, who is the middleman, cannot be 诪讜讞诇 anymore, because in a case like that, 砖诪注讜谉, so to speak, is out of the picture. In a normal case, where 砖诪注讜谉, for instance, would sell the 砖讟专 讞讜讘 to 诇讜讬, so then, the loan is still owed to 砖诪注讜谉. And therefore, even though 专讗讜讘谉 will have to pay to 诇讜讬, but nevertheless, since the debt is to 砖诪注讜谉, 砖诪注讜谉 is able to be 诪讜讞诇, and if he is 诪讜讞诇, 专讗讜讘谉 doesn't have to pay anymore. But in a case where it's done through 诪注诪讚 砖诇砖转谉, that all three are standing there, and 砖诪注讜谉 says in front of 专讗讜讘谉 and 诇讜讬 that I want you now to pay the money to 诇讜讬, automatically it is transferred to 诇讜讬, and 砖诪注讜谉 cannot be 诪讜讞诇 anymore. So 诪诪讬诇讗, why don't we do that here too? Let's have her sell the 讻转讜讘讛 to somebody else 讘诪注诪讚 砖诇砖转谉, that all three will be there, and automatically the debt of the 讻转讜讘讛 will go over to that third person, and she won't be able to be 诪讜讞诇. And then she will pay for the injury, because she will have the money from the sale of the 讻转讜讘讛, and when we're afraid that she might cause a loss to the one that bought the 讻转讜讘讛, she won't be able to because she won't be able to be 诪讜讞诇. And

Why three鈥憄erson method does not apply to ketubah

转讜住驻讜转 answers that 诪注诪讚 砖诇砖转谉 would not help in the case of a 讻转讜讘讛. Since the 讻转讜讘讛 is not mature till after he divorces her or after he dies, so it comes out that at this point, the 讻转讜讘讛 is not able to be collected. So a 砖讟专 which is not 注讜诪讚 诇讙讘讜转, which is not ready to be collected now, is not considered a 砖讟专 that you could sell with 诪注诪讚 砖诇砖转谉. So since you can't sell it with 诪注诪讚 砖诇砖转谉, the only way would be to sell it in a normal way, and if he sells it in a normal way we're afraid she will be 诪讜讞诇, and therefore the 讞讻诪讬诐 said that she doesn't have to do that. But 转讜住驻讜转 asks another 拽砖讬讗: If we say that concerning her husband, she definitely will be 诪讜讞诇, so what did the 讙诪专讗 say before? That if 注讚讬诐 say that she was paid her 讻转讜讘讛 already, and the truth is that she wasn't paid, so we make them pay the 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛. And what is the 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛? We estimate how much would a person be ready to pay for this 讻转讜讘讛 taking the risk whether he will get it or not, and that amount is the amount that they wanted her to lose, and that's how much they pay her. But if we say that she is definitely going to be 诪讜讞诇, so who is going to buy the 讻转讜讘讛? We say we have to estimate how much would a person pay to buy the 讻转讜讘讛, but no person would ever buy the 讻转讜讘讛, because we know for sure she's going to be 诪讜讞诇 to her husband! So no one will ever pay a penny for it, because it's not the 驻砖讟 he's taking a risk, maybe he'll get it, maybe not. He definitely won't get anything out of it, because we said 讻诇 诇讙讘讬 讘注诇 讜讚讗讬 诪讞诇讛, because concerning her husband she definitely will be 诪讜讞诇. So the 讻转讜讘讛 is not worth anything now, because no one is going to buy it. So how could the 讙诪专讗 say that we evaluate what is the 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 of the 讻转讜讘讛 now, in other words, how much would a person pay for the 讻转讜讘讛 now? And 转讜住驻讜转 answers that in normal circumstances, there could be a possibility that there is only a risk, but we are not sure that she will be 诪讜讞诇. For instance, if she gives a 诪砖讻讜谉, or she gets an 注专讘, someone who takes 注专讘讜转, who guarantees for it, or she will make a 谞讚专 or a 砖讘讜注讛 that she will not be 诪讜讞诇, so then we know for sure she will not be 诪讜讞诇. So then all that remains is a risk whether she will die first or her husband will die first, or divorce her. So therefore, there the 讙诪专讗 says that there is a 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛, a value of 讟讜讘转 讛谞讗讛 to the 讻转讜讘讛. Here, what the 讙诪专讗 says that 诇讙讘讬 husband, she definitely will be 诪讜讞诇, we're talking in a case where she injured somebody. And we're saying that she should sell the 讻转讜讘讛 in order to pay for her injuries. So obviously, she doesn't have anything else, so she can't give a 诪砖讻讜谉. Because if she would have something to give a 诪砖讻讜谉, let her pay with that. Obviously she doesn't have anything to give a 诪砖讻讜谉. Also, we can't force her to make a 谞讚专 or a 砖讘讜注讛 that she will not be 诪讜讞诇 the 讻转讜讘讛, because since she doesn't own anything, so there is nothing that there is a 砖讬注讘讜讚 on from the person that she injured. Since there is no 砖讬注讘讜讚 on her from that person, so she's also not obligated to do anything to make sure that she will not be 诪讜讞诇. If there would be a 砖讬注讘讜讚 on her, then the 讘讬转 讚讬谉 could force her to make a 砖讘讜注讛, a 谞讚专, or get an 注专讘, make sure that the person won't lose. But since there is no 砖讬注讘讜讚, so she is not obligated to do anything. So

Inability to force vows or guarantors in ketubah case

therefore, she definitely will not swear, not make a 谞讚专 that she will not be 诪讜讞诇. She will not get an 注专讘. And as far as the 讻转讜讘讛 itself is concerned, since it's concerning her husband, she definitely will be 诪讜讞诇. Therefore the 讙诪专讗 says there is no use in having her sell the 讻转讜讘讛, because even though she's going to get some money to pay for the injury, but at the same time, she definitely will cause a loss to the person who bought the 讻转讜讘讛, and therefore the 讞讻诪讬诐 said she shouldn't do that. Concerning what the 讙诪专讗 said at the end, that just like when a woman sells the 讻转讜讘讛 to somebody else, the 讘谞讬谉 讚讻专讬谉 do not lose, so too if she sells her 讻转讜讘讛 to her husband, the 讘谞讬谉 讚讻专讬谉 do not lose, 转讜住驻讜转 asks: 诇讻讗讜专讛, how could she sell her 讻转讜讘讛 to her husband? She definitely cannot be 诪讜讞诇 her 讻转讜讘讛 to her husband because of what 专讘讬 诪讗讬专 said, that you're not allowed to live with your wife without a 讻转讜讘讛. So if she's 诪讜讞诇 the 讻转讜讘讛, she's not allowed to live with him. So 诇讻讗讜专讛, just like she cannot be 诪讜讞诇 the 讻转讜讘讛, she also shouldn't be able to sell her 讻转讜讘讛 to her husband. 转讜住驻讜转 says: 讗讬谉 讛讻讬 谞诪讬, 诇讻转讞讬诇讛 she's 讟讗拽注 not allowed to sell her 讻转讜讘讛 to her husband, but what does the 讘专讬讬转讗 mean that if she did sell her 讻转讜讘讛 to her husband? She wasn't allowed, but what happens if she did? So then do the children lose, the 讘谞讬谉 讚讻专讬谉 lose the 讻转讜讘转 讘谞讬谉 讚讻专讬谉 or not? But the 讘专讬讬转讗 says they don't lose. Or

Selling only the excess (转讜住驻转) of a ketubah

转讜住驻讜转 says, the case is where she sold the 转讜住驻转 讻转讜讘讛. She's not allowed to sell the complete 讻转讜讘讛 because then it'll be easy for him to divorce her. But what happens if in the 讻转讜讘讛 there is more than the minimum? So that extra she's definitely allowed to sell. Because as long as the minimum is left, so then there is a 讻转讜讘讛 that the 讞讻诪讬诐 were 诪转拽谉, so then the rest she's allowed to sell. And that's what we're saying, if she sells the rest of the 讻转讜讘讛, the 转讜住驻转 讻转讜讘讛, nevertheless, after she died, and then her husband dies, her children will inherit the whole amount of the 讻转讜讘讛, even the part that she sold, because even if she sells the 讻转讜讘讛, as far as the 讘谞讬谉 讚讻专讬谉 are concerned, they still don't lose, they still get their share of the 讻转讜讘讛.

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